CIS-Event Management Sample Questions

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CIS-Event Management Sample Questions

The goal, target audience, testing alternatives, and exam subject coverage are all specified in the ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist CIS-Event Management exam. a testing structure and requirements to become a certified specialist in Certified Implementation Specialist – Event Management. You need certificates like the CIS-Event Management while looking for work in a highly competitive job market to safeguard your future. The event business is always changing. New and improved software, hardware, and procedures necessitate ongoing skill development. The article provides a list of CIS-Event Management Sample Questions that cover core exam topics including –

  • Event Management Overview
  • Architecture and Discovery
  • Event Configuration and Use
  • Alerts and Tasks
  • Event Sources

Q1)In what part of the alert management rule creation process would you specify a workflow to address a particular condition?

  • A. From the tab for remediation
  • B. From the tab for actions
  • C. From the Launcher tab.
  • D. Located under Related Links

Correct Answer: B and C

Q2) On what kinds of systems may a MID Server be installed?

  • A. OpenVMS System
  • B. Microsoft Windows Server
  • C. Linux System
  • D. Microsoft Windows Desktop
  • E. Any system inside the customer firewall
  • F. Mac OS X System

Correct Answer: B and C

Q3) What would the main application be for developing Javascripts in Event Management?

  • A. To design a custom pull connector to retrieve events for an event source
  • B. To have the Configuration Management Database automatically populated (CMDB)
  • C. To extract a nodename from your raw event data in an event rule,
  • D. To be carried out as a step in a remediation process for IT warnings that don’t get through

Correct Answer: A

Q4)Which criteria would you use to specify the monitoring sources that are permitted to exchange data with the ServiceNow instance for operational intelligence?

  • A. Metric Registration
  • B. Metric Config Rules
  • C. Metric Type Actions
  • D. Metric to CI

Correct Answer: C

Q5)What factors make up the composite value of the Alert Priority score?

  • A. The importance of the category and proportional weight of the alert
  • B. The importance of the alert’s priority group and category
  • C. The importance of the alert’s Priority and Severity Group
  • D. The severity of the alert and its relative weight value

Correct Answer: A

Q6)What characteristic is in charge of de-duplication?

  • A. Metric_name
  • B. Message_key
  • C. Short_description
  • D. Additional_info

Correct Answer: B

Q7)What is the event connectors’ collective default collection/polling interval?

  • A. Every 120 seconds
  • B. Every 5 seconds
  • C. Every 40 seconds
  • D. Every 60 seconds
  • E. Every 10 seconds

Correct Answer: A

Q8)What is the aggregate default collection/polling interval of the event connectors?

  • A. Alert Activity
  • B. Event Additional Information
  • C. Event Processing Notes
  • D. Alert Message Key
  • E. Alert Source

Correct Answer: A and C

Q9)What feature would you utilise to start a workflow or have tasks be created automatically using templates?

  • A. Event rules
  • B. Task rules
  • C. Alert management rules
  • D. Alert correlation rules

Correct Answer: C

Q10)What are the legal states that an alert may be in at any given time?

  • A. Open, Reopen, Flapping, Closed
  • B. New, Updating, Waiting, Complete
  • C. Open, Updating, Swinging, Closed
  • D. Open, Warning, Flapping, Clear

Correct Answer: A

Q11)Which Event Management module enables the setting of automatically creating tasks?

  • A. Alert management rules
  • B. Task rules
  • C. Event rules
  • D. Alert correlation rules

Correct Answer: A

Q12)Which field in the event table corresponds to the external attributes from the system under test?

  • A. Resource
  • B. Description
  • C. Source
  • D. Additional Information

Correct Answer: C

Q13)What kind of notifications are displayed by default in the Alert Console?

  • A. All primary, open alerts and anomaly alerts that are not in maintenance mode and have a Severity of Critical, Major, Minor, or Warning
  • Anomaly alerts with a Severity of Critical, Major, Minor, or Warning that are not in Maintenance mode, as well as all Primary and Secondary Open Alerts
  • C. All primary alerts that are not in maintenance mode and have a Severity of Critical, Major, Minor, or Warning
  • D. All primary, open alerts that aren’t in maintenance mode and have a severity rating of Critical, Major, Minor, or Warning
  • E. All primary and secondary open alerts that aren’t in maintenance mode and have a severity rating of Critical, Major, Minor, or Warning

Correct Answer: E

Q14)Which best practises for event management are advised? (Select three.)

  • A. For simpler consolidation and aggregation, filter out events on the ServiceNow instance.
  • B. Prior to properly understanding which events should be disregarded, promote all occurrences to alerts during the initial implementation.
  • C. Rather than in the ServiceNow instance, filter out events at the source.
  • D. Baseline “normal-state” events to eliminate ambiance
  • E. To speed up processing, ignore any non-critical events when first implementing; gradually add warnings as time and

Correct Answer: C, D and E

Q15)What enables an active alert to be cancelled automatically for an incoming event with a matching message key?

  • A. In the event rule, set the Severity to 0
  • B. In the alert rule, set the Severity to 0
  • C. In the alert rule, set the Severity to -1
  • D. In the event rule, set the Severity to -1

Correct Answer: A

Q16)Even though the evt mgmt.incident closes alert property is configured suitably to close the alert, even though a support agent resolves an incident linked to an alert, the alert does not immediately shut. What is the most probable reason for this problem?

  • A. The support agent does not have the evt_mgmt_user role.
  • B. The support agent only has the evt_mgmt_admin role.
  • C. The support agent has the evt_mgmt_operator role, but not the evt_mgmt_user role.
  • D. The support agent has the evt_mgmt_user role, but not the evt_mgmt_operator role.

Correct Answer: A

Q17)What are the two most true assertions about the ServiceNow CIs (configuration items) and CMDB (configuration management database)?

  • A. Your platform’s critical pathways and other major hardware components that must be controlled are contained in a set of tables called the CMDB.
  • B. The CIs on your platform as well as the connections between those things are tracked in the CMDB, which is a dynamic list.
  • C. Your infrastructure must allocate an IP address to each CI that is kept in the CMDB.
  • D. A CI is any infrastructure component that must be managed in order to provide services.

Correct Answer: B and D

Q18)What would you use as a starting point to investigate the definitions of the CI tables, CIs, and the CMDB class hierarchy?

  • A. CI Remediations
  • B. CI Relation Types
  • C. CI Identifiers
  • D. Process to CI Type Mapping
  • E. CI Class Manager

Correct Answer: E

Q19)The components (CIs) of a business service are a four node cluster. The cluster’s impact influence is set at 60%. In order for the Business Service to appear as Critical in the Impact Tree, how many members of the cluster must be in a Critical state?

  • A. 1
  • B. 2
  • C. 3
  • D. 4

Correct Answer: C

Q20)By matching the node name in the event to which three configuration management database items, does Event Management by default attempt to tie an alert to a CI (configuration item)?

  • A. CI name, Fully qualified domain name, IP or MAC address
  • B. CI name, Webserver name, IP or MAC address
  • C. CI name, Fully qualified domain name, SSH public host keys
  • D. System class name, Fully qualified domain name, IP or MAC address

Correct Answer: A

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