Certified Network Defender (CND) Sample Questions
The Certified Network Defender test has been worked to improve the information on Network heads who are working in safeguarding, distinguishing, and answering the dangers on the organization. With this certificate, the up-and-comer will get a profound key comprehension of the genuine build of the information move, network innovations, and programming innovations so they comprehend how organizations work, comprehend what programming is computerizing and how to break down the subject material. Alongside that, network protection basics, the utilization of organization security controls, conventions, edge apparatuses, secure IDS, VPN and firewall setup, complexities of organization traffic mark, examination, and weakness checking are likewise covered which will assist the Network Administrator with planning more noteworthy organization security strategies and effective episode reaction plans.
Advanced Sample Questions
Which of the following is the primary goal of network defense?
- a. To prevent all network attacks
- b. To detect and respond to network attacks
- c. To eliminate all network vulnerabilities
- d. To educate end-users on security best practices
Answer: b. To detect and respond to network attacks
Explanation: Network defense is focused on detecting and responding to network attacks, rather than preventing them altogether. This is because it is nearly impossible to completely prevent all attacks, and instead the focus should be on minimizing the impact of successful attacks.
What is a honeypot?
- a. A type of firewall
- b. A fake system designed to attract attackers
- c. A tool for network mapping
- d. A type of intrusion detection system
Answer: b. A fake system designed to attract attackers
Explanation: A honeypot is a fake system or network designed to attract attackers and divert their attention from the real system. It is used to gather information about attackers and their tactics.
What is the purpose of vulnerability scanning?
- a. To detect known vulnerabilities in a system
- b. To prevent all attacks on a system
- c. To test the effectiveness of a system’s security controls
- d. To simulate a real-world attack on a system
Answer: a. To detect known vulnerabilities in a system
Explanation: Vulnerability scanning is the process of identifying known vulnerabilities in a system or network. This information can be used to patch vulnerabilities and reduce the risk of successful attacks.
What is a firewall?
- a. A type of antivirus software
- b. A tool for managing network traffic
- c. A type of intrusion detection system
- d. A tool for blocking malicious network traffic
Answer: b. A tool for managing network traffic
Explanation: A firewall is a tool for managing network traffic by monitoring and blocking unauthorized traffic. It can be used to prevent attacks by blocking malicious traffic and allowing only authorized traffic.
What is the purpose of network segmentation?
- a. To divide a network into smaller segments for easier management
- b. To eliminate all network vulnerabilities
- c. To prevent all network attacks
- d. To detect and respond to network attacks
Answer: a. To divide a network into smaller segments for easier management
Explanation: Network segmentation is the process of dividing a network into smaller segments or subnets. This is done for easier management and to limit the impact of successful attacks by isolating them to a specific segment.
Which of the following is a common method for gaining unauthorized access to a network?
- a. Phishing
- b. Patching
- c. Encryption
- d. Authentication
Answer: a. Phishing
Explanation: Phishing is a common method for gaining unauthorized access to a network by tricking users into revealing sensitive information, such as usernames and passwords.
What is the purpose of a demilitarized zone (DMZ)?
- a. To block all inbound network traffic
- b. To allow unrestricted network access
- c. To provide a secure area for publicly accessible services
- d. To eliminate all network vulnerabilities
Answer: c. To provide a secure area for publicly accessible services
Explanation: A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a secure area of a network that is designed to provide a secure area for publicly accessible services, such as web servers. It is placed between the internal network and the internet, and is used to limit the impact of successful attacks on the internal network.
What is the purpose of intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS)?
- a. To prevent all network attacks
- b. To detect and respond to network attacks
- c. To eliminate all network vulnerabilities
- d. To encrypt all network traffic
Answer: b. To detect and respond to network attacks
Explanation: Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are used to detect and respond to network attacks. They can be used to identify and block malicious traffic, alert administrators of suspicious activity, and provide information for incident response.
Which of the following is an example of a denial-of-service (DoS) attack?
- a. Installing malware on a user’s computer
- b. Intercepting and stealing sensitive information
- c. Flooding a network with traffic to disrupt service
- d. Spoofing a user’s identity to gain access to a network
Answer: c. Flooding a network with traffic to disrupt service
Explanation: A denial-of-service (DoS) attack is a type of attack that floods a network or system with traffic to disrupt service. The goal is to overwhelm the system and prevent legitimate users from accessing it.
What is the purpose of network forensics?
- a. To identify vulnerabilities in a network
- b. To recover lost data from a network
- c. To analyze and investigate security incidents
- d. To simulate a real-world attack on a network
Answer: c. To analyze and investigate security incidents
Explanation: Network forensics is the process of analyzing and investigating security incidents on a network. It involves collecting and analyzing data from various sources to determine the cause and extent of the incident, and to identify potential vulnerabilities that could be exploited in future attacks.
Basic Sample Questions
1.) Which record characterizes how a task is executed, checked and controlled, and shut?
A. Well-defined course of action
B. Project charter
C. Project management
D. Service level agreement
Right Answer: C
2.) Which changes happen in hazard and vulnerability as well as the expense of changes as the existing pattern of a typical project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increment; the expense of changes increments.
B. Risk and uncertainty increment; the expense of changes diminishes.
C. Risk and uncertainty decline; the expense of changes increments.
D. Risk and uncertainty decline; the expense of changes decreases.
Right Answer: C
3.) Which device or strategy is utilized in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Product analysis
C. Observations
D. Expert judgment
Right Answer: D
4.) Which device or procedure is an assessment of the business and explicit vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conference
Right Answer: B
Market research incorporates the assessment of the business and explicit merchant abilities. Obtainment groups might use data acquired at meetings, online surveys, and various sources to recognize market capacities.
The group may likewise refine specific acquisition goals to use developing advances while offsetting changes related to the expansiveness of sellers who can give the materials or administrations wanted.
5.) An input utilized in fostering the communications of the management plan is:
A. Communication models.
B. An enterprise environmental factor.
C. An organizational communication.
D. The organizational styles and cultures.
Right Answer: B
6.) Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree examination (FTA), and analysis of trend are instances of which device or strategy?
A. An expert judgment
B. Determining/Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques
Right Answer: D
7.) Analytical techniques are applied in projects by the management to gauge potential results in view of potential varieties of the project or environmental factors and their associations with different factors.
The Perform Quality Assurance process happens in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Observing and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Initiating
Right Answer: A
8.) Endeavor ecological elements are a contribution to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Characterize Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Gather Requirements
Right Answer: C
9.) Which interaction creates choices and activities to improve open doors and diminish dangers to project goals?
A. Identify the risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
Right Answer: D
10.) The most common way of laying out the approaches, strategies, and documentation for arranging, creating, making due, executing, and controlling the task plan is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Foster Project Charter.
C. Foster Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.
Right Answer: A
11.) Which contribution to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is utilized to archive changes that happen during the task?
A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Master judgment
D. Change demands
Right Answer: B
12.) A contribution to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
A. The task sanction.
B. The partner examination.
C. A correspondence to the management plan.
D. A partner register.
Right Answer: D
13.) A contribution to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Quotes
B. Asset schedules
C. The venture contract
D. The gamble register
Right Answer: C
14.) A method used to decide the reason and level of distinction among gauge and genuine execution is:
A. Item investigation.
B. Fluctuation examination.
C. Archive examination.
D. Deterioration.
Right Answer: B
Change examination is a procedure for deciding the reason and level of distinction between the benchmark and genuine execution. Project execution estimations are utilized to evaluate the extent of variety from the first extension gauge. Significant parts of venture scope control incorporate deciding the reason and level of difference comparative with the extension gauge and concluding whether the remedial or preventive activity is required.
15.) The method involved with recognizing and recording project jobs, obligations, required abilities, revealing connections, and making staffing the board plan is known as:
A. Foster Project Team.
B. Oversee Project Team.
C. Secure Project Team.
D. Plan Human Resource Management.
Right Answer: D
Plan Human Resource Management
Definition: The most common way of distinguishing and recording project jobs, obligations, required abilities, detailing connections, and making staffing the management’s plan.
Key Benefit: The vital advantage of this cycle is that it lays out project jobs and obligations, project association graphs, and the staffing of the executive’s plan
16.) Which sort of reliance is legitimately or legally required or innate in the idea of work and frequently includes actual restrictions?
A. Obligatory
B. Optional
C. Interior
D. Outside
Right Answer: A
17.) During which cycle does a venture director survey all earlier data to guarantee that everything project work is finished and that the task has met its goals?
A. Screen and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Scope
Right Answer: C
18.) A contribution to the Manage Project Team process is:
A. Work execution reports.
B. Change demands.
C. Movement asset prerequisites.
D. Endeavor ecological variables.
Right Answer: A
19.) Which info gives providers an unmistakable arrangement of objectives, necessities, and results?
A. Acquirement proclamation of work
B. Buy request
C. Source choice standards
D. Bidder meeting
Right Answer: B
20.) A huge part of an undertaking’s financial plan is regularly consumed by the cycles in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Arranging
C. Checking and Controlling
D. Shutting
Right Answer: A
