Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Sample Questions
The Cloud Security Alliance® and ISACA® are collaborating to create the Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) credential and training programme, which will be the first credential created for industry professionals to show their understanding of the fundamental principles of cloud computing auditing. To promote a shared understanding of cloud auditing, the CCAK was developed. When a company uses cloud computing, there are many methods for achieving control objectives. Since cloud tenants won’t have the same administrative access as legacy IT tenants, their use of security controls will go beyond those of a standard IT audit. The article provides a list of Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Sample Questions that cover core exam topics including –
- MODULE 1 – Cloud Governance
- MODULE 2 – Cloud Compliance Program
- MODULE 3 – CCM and CAIQ Goals, Objectives, and Structure
- MODULE 4 – A Threat Analysis Methodology for Cloud Using CCM
- MODULE 5 – Evaluating a Cloud Compliance Program
- MODULE 6 – Cloud Auditing
- MODULE 7 – CCM: Auditing Controls
- MODULE 8 – Continuous Assurance and Compliance
- MODULE 9 – STAR Program
Advanced Sample Questions
Which of the following is a key difference between a traditional IT audit and a cloud audit?
- A) Traditional IT audits require physical access to systems, while cloud audits can be conducted remotely.
- B) Traditional IT audits are focused on operational controls, while cloud audits are focused on security controls.
- C) Traditional IT audits are conducted on-premises, while cloud audits are conducted off-premises.
- D) Traditional IT audits are conducted by IT staff, while cloud audits are conducted by external auditors.
Answer: A) Traditional IT audits require physical access to systems, while cloud audits can be conducted remotely.
Explanation: One of the key benefits of cloud computing is that it allows for remote access and management of IT resources. This means that cloud audits can be conducted remotely, without the need for auditors to physically access the systems being audited. Traditional IT audits, on the other hand, often require auditors to have physical access to the systems being audited.
Which of the following is a key responsibility of a cloud auditor?
- A) Developing and implementing cloud security policies and procedures.
- B) Conducting vulnerability scans and penetration tests on cloud systems.
- C) Providing guidance and recommendations to cloud providers on security and compliance.
- D) Configuring and managing cloud infrastructure and services.
Answer: C) Providing guidance and recommendations to cloud providers on security and compliance.
Explanation: A cloud auditor’s primary responsibility is to provide independent assurance that a cloud provider’s security and compliance controls are effective and in compliance with relevant regulations and standards. They are not responsible for developing or implementing security policies and procedures, conducting vulnerability scans and penetration tests, or configuring and managing cloud infrastructure and services. Instead, their role is to provide guidance and recommendations to cloud providers to improve their security and compliance posture.
Which of the following is a benefit of using a cloud access security broker (CASB) for cloud auditing?
- A) CASBs provide real-time monitoring and analytics of cloud usage and activity.
- B) CASBs allow auditors to directly access and audit cloud systems.
- C) CASBs provide a single pane of glass for auditing and reporting across multiple cloud environments.
- D) CASBs automate the process of auditing cloud controls and configurations.
Answer: C) CASBs provide a single pane of glass for auditing and reporting across multiple cloud environments.
Explanation: CASBs are cloud-based security solutions that sit between the cloud provider and the cloud consumer, providing visibility, control, and security for cloud services. One of the key benefits of using a CASB for cloud auditing is that it provides a single pane of glass for auditing and reporting across multiple cloud environments. This makes it easier for auditors to gather and analyze audit data from different cloud providers and to ensure consistency in auditing across multiple environments.
Which of the following is a key consideration for cloud auditors when auditing cloud compliance?
- A) Ensuring that cloud providers meet all applicable regulatory requirements.
- B) Verifying that cloud providers have implemented all necessary security controls.
- C) Ensuring that cloud providers have implemented appropriate disaster recovery and business continuity plans.
- D) Verifying that cloud providers have adequate financial controls in place.
Answer: A) Ensuring that cloud providers meet all applicable regulatory requirements.
Explanation: Cloud auditors need to ensure that cloud providers are complying with all applicable regulatory requirements, including those related to data privacy, security, and compliance. This may include regulations like GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI-DSS, among others. While verifying that cloud providers have implemented necessary security controls, disaster recovery and business continuity plans, and financial controls are also important considerations, ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements is the primary responsibility of a cloud auditor.
Which of the following is a key component of a cloud provider’s Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
- A) A list of all the hardware and software components used to deliver the service.
- B) The maximum number of users that can access the service at any given time.
- C) The level of availability and uptime the provider guarantees for the service.
- D) The specific security controls and technologies used to protect customer data.
Answer: C) The level of availability and uptime the provider guarantees for the service.
Explanation: A cloud provider’s Service Level Agreement (SLA) outlines the terms and conditions under which the provider will deliver their services to customers. One of the key components of an SLA is the level of availability and uptime the provider guarantees for the service. This typically includes a percentage value (e.g., 99.9% uptime) and may also specify penalties or compensation if the provider fails to meet these service level targets. While the other options may be included in an SLA, they are not typically considered key components.
Which of the following is a key benefit of using a continuous monitoring approach in cloud auditing?
- A) It allows for real-time detection of security incidents and breaches.
- B) It eliminates the need for manual audit reviews and assessments.
- C) It provides assurance that all cloud controls and configurations are up-to-date.
- D) It enables auditors to conduct thorough penetration tests on cloud systems.
Answer: A) It allows for real-time detection of security incidents and breaches.
Explanation: Continuous monitoring is a proactive approach to security and compliance that involves monitoring cloud environments in real-time to detect security incidents and breaches as they occur. This approach allows for timely detection and response to security threats, reducing the risk of damage or data loss. While it may also help with other aspects of cloud auditing, such as ensuring that controls and configurations are up-to-date, its primary benefit is in providing real-time detection of security incidents.
Which of the following is a key consideration when conducting a risk assessment for cloud services?
- A) The physical location of the cloud data centers and infrastructure.
- B) The level of encryption used to protect data in transit and at rest.
- C) The types of data and applications being stored and processed in the cloud.
- D) The technical skills and expertise of the cloud provider’s staff.
Answer: C) The types of data and applications being stored and processed in the cloud.
Explanation: Conducting a risk assessment is an important part of cloud auditing, as it helps auditors identify and prioritize the risks associated with the use of cloud services. When conducting a risk assessment, auditors should consider a wide range of factors, including the types of data and applications being stored and processed in the cloud, as well as the sensitivity and criticality of that data. While the other options may also be relevant considerations, they are not typically considered key considerations for risk assessments.
Which of the following is a key difference between a cloud provider’s security controls and a customer’s security controls in a cloud environment?
- A) Cloud provider controls are managed by the customer, while customer controls are managed by the provider.
- B) Cloud provider controls are generally more robust and effective than customer controls.
- C) Cloud provider controls are designed to protect the provider’s infrastructure, while customer controls are designed to protect customer data.
- D) Cloud provider controls are static and unchanging, while customer controls can be customized and adapted as needed.
Answer: C) Cloud provider controls are designed to protect the provider’s infrastructure, while customer controls are designed to protect customer data.
Explanation: In a cloud environment, security controls are divided between the cloud provider (who is responsible for securing the infrastructure
Which of the following is a key factor in selecting an appropriate cloud deployment model for an organization?
- A) The level of customization and control required by the organization.
- B) The number of users and the volume of data to be processed and stored.
- C) The location and regulatory requirements of the organization.
- D) The technical expertise and resources of the organization.
Answer: A) The level of customization and control required by the organization.
Explanation: Cloud deployment models (e.g., public, private, hybrid) offer different levels of customization and control to organizations, and the appropriate model will depend on the organization’s specific needs and requirements. Factors such as the number of users and volume of data may also be important considerations, but the level of customization and control required is often the primary factor that determines the appropriate deployment model.
Which of the following is a key challenge in cloud auditing?
- A) The lack of transparency and visibility into cloud service providers’ security and compliance practices.
- B) The complexity of cloud environments and the difficulty in identifying and prioritizing risks.
- C) The limited access to cloud data and applications that auditors may have.
- D) The difficulty in adapting traditional auditing methodologies to cloud environments.
Answer: A) The lack of transparency and visibility into cloud service providers’ security and compliance practices.
Explanation: Cloud auditing can be challenging due to the lack of transparency and visibility into cloud service providers’ security and compliance practices. Cloud service providers may use different security and compliance frameworks, and may not provide detailed information on how their controls are implemented and monitored. As a result, auditors may need to rely on alternative methods to assess the effectiveness of cloud service providers’ security and compliance practices.
Basic Sample Questions
Q1)Which of the following changes will MOST likely have an impact on whether controls are expanded or reduced in order to mitigate the risk brought on by changes to a company’s SaaS vendor?
- A. Risk exceptions policy
- B. Contractual requirements
- C. Risk appetite
- D. Board oversight
Correct Answer: C
Q2)A CSP hires a company to do a penetration test on its infrastructures. With no prior knowledge of the target’s defences, resources, or channels, the auditor engages it. The scope of the audit and the test vectors are not disclosed to the CSP’s security operation centre beforehand. Which mode does the CSP choose?
- A. Double gray box
- B. Tandem
- C. Reversal
- D. Double blind
Correct Answer: D
Q3)An audit plan that was initially approved cannot be executed due to resource limitations on the part of the cloud audit team. Which course of action is MOST pertinent, assuming the scenario is disclosed in the cloud audit report?
- A. Focusing on high-risk auditing areas,
- B. evaluating the design’s suitability for cloud controls
- C. relying on management testing of cloud controls
- D. Evaluating the effectiveness of cloud controls operationally
Correct Answer: A
Q4)How are policy infractions MOST likely to happen within an organisation?
- A. By accident
- B. Deliberately by the ISP
- C. Deliberately
- D. Deliberately by the cloud provider
Correct Answer: A
Q5)The BEST tool to conduct cloud security control audits is which of the following?
- A. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
- B. ISO 27001
- C. Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 140-2
- D. CSA Cloud Control Matrix (CCM)
Correct Answer: D
Q6)The configuration of network environments and virtual instances must limit and track traffic between trustworthy and untrusted connections. These configurations must be evaluated at least once a year, and the use of all permitted services, protocols, ports, and compensating controls must be justified in writing. Which of the following controls BEST fits the description of this control?
- A. Network Security
- B. Change Detection
- C. Virtual Instance and OS Hardening
- D. Network Vulnerability Management
Correct Answer: A
Q7)A cybersecurity criminal gains access to an encrypted file system after identifying a weakness in an organization’s internet-facing server. They are then able to successfully overwrite a portion of some files with random data. How would you classify the technical impact of this occurrence in terms of the Top Threats Analysis methodology?
- A. As an integrity breach
- B. As control breach
- C. As an availability breach
- D. As a confidentiality breach
Correct Answer: B
Q8)Organizations keep maps of the various control frameworks they use to:
- A. Assist in locating controls with standardised assessment status.
- B. when evaluating conformity, avoid doing the same thing twice.
- C. Assist in locating controls with various assessment statuses.
- D. begin a compliance assessment using the most recent evaluation.
Correct Answer: C
Q9)The SAST test is carried out by:
- A. Examining the source code of the application.
- B. scanning the application interface.
- C. examining every part of the infrastructure.
- D. engaging in manual processes to take command of the application.
Correct Answer: A
Q10)Following a change in a client’s business process, the
- A review can take place, but the SLA cannot be changed.
- B. the cloud contract should be promptly terminated and not reconsidered.
- C. not be done because there is no way to update the SLA.
- D. undergo review and, if necessary, update.
Correct Answer: D
Q11)An audit initiation meeting with a cloud audit client’s primary goal is to:
- A. Choose the auditing approach.
- B. examine the requested information from the audit client.
- C. go over the audit’s parameters.
- D. determine the cloud audit’s
Correct Answer: C
Q12) For the maintenance of a number of things ensuring continuity and availability of operations and support staff, policies and procedures must be defined, and accompanying business processes and technical measures must be put in place. Which of the following controls BEST fits the description of this control?
- A. Operations Maintenance
- B. System Development Maintenance
- C. Equipment Maintenance
- D. System Maintenance
Correct Answer: A
Q13)An auditor notes that over the course of the previous month, a CSP received numerous customer inquiries and RFPs. Which of the following suggestions ought to be implemented in order to lessen the CSP burden?
- A. To simplify the process, CSP can share all security reports with customers.
- B. CSP is able to arrange a call with each client.
- C. CSP offers personalised responses for every client.
- D. All customer inquiries can be directed to the CSA STAR registry by CSP.
Correct Answer: D
Q14)Which of the following strategies combines penetration testing, physical access control circumvention, and staff social engineering?
- A. Blue team
- B. White box
- C. Gray box
- D. Red team
Correct Answer: B
Q15)What is the scope of the technical impact identification stage when using the Top Threats Analysis technique after an incident in Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) ?
- A. Ascertain the effect on the controls that the organisation chose to implement in response to the risks that were identified.
- B. Assess the effect on the information system’s availability, confidentiality, and integrity.
- C. Ascertain the effect on the organization’s finances, operations, compliance, and reputation.
- D. Ascertain the effect on the organization’s environmental and physical security, excluding informational assets.
Correct Answer: D
Q16)What would be the MOST important element to audit in respect to the strategy of the cloud customer that should be developed collaboratively with the cloud service provider when undertaking audits in relation to Business Continuity Management and Operational Resilience strategy in Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) ?
- A. Confirm that the plan addresses the entire or partial non-availability of all components necessary to carry out business as normal or in a disrupted mode when affected by a disruption.
- B. Verify that the strategy takes into account all areas of business continuity and resilience planning, taking into account activities for before, during, and after a disruption, using inputs from the evaluated effects and risks.
- C. Verify that the strategy includes all actions necessary to carry out and recover from prioritised activities within specified time limits and capacity, in line with the organization’s risk appetite, including the use of continuity plans and crisis management tools.
- D. Verify that both cloud service providers and cloud service users created the plan within the permitted ranges of their risk appetite.
Correct Answer: B
Q17)Which of the following metrics is typically underdeveloped in Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) ?
- A. Metrics for storage and network settings in infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
- B. Development environments for Platform as a Service (PaaS) metrics
- C. Metrics for computing environments that use Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
- D. Measures related to particular Software as a Service (SaaS) application services
Correct Answer: A
Q18)The following is the MAIN distinction between the Consensus Assessment Initiative Questionnaire (CAIQ) and the Cloud Control Matrix (CCM):
- A. CAIQ evaluates the overall security of a service, whereas CCM evaluates the presence of controls.
- B. While CAIQ has a collection of security controls, CCM has a set of security questions.
- C. CAIQ contains 16 domains compared to 14 for CCM.
- D. While CAIQ offers generally accepted methods to document which security controls are included in IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS products, CCM offers a controls framework.
Correct Answer: D
Q19)Which of the following best illustrates how a business’s finances are impacted?
- A. The SaaS sales and marketing systems are taken down by a hacker using a stolen administrator account, making it impossible to maintain client relationships or process orders from customers.
- B. Although the compromise was promptly disclosed to the CEO, the CFO and CISO publicly blamed one another, which caused a loss of public confidence and prompted the board to terminate all three.
- C. A DDoS assault prevents access to the client’s cloud for 24 hours, costing millions in lost business.
- D. A breach of client personal data from an unsafe server goes unreported by the cloud provider, incurring a 10 million euro GDPR fine.
Correct Answer: C
Q20)Which of the following BEST reflects the DevSecOps idea from the viewpoint of a senior cloud security audit practitioner in a business with a mature security programme and cloud adoption?
- A. Software development standards for addressing integration, testing, and deployment problems.
- B. A process for automating security integration
- C. An automated operational framework that encourages software consistency
- D. Using automation to make software development simpler, faster, and easier.
Correct Answer: B
