CompTIA Network+ (N10-008) Sample Questions

Advanced Sample Questions

Which of the following network topologies requires a central hub or switch for communication?

• a. Bus
• b. Mesh
• c. Ring
• d. Star

Answer: d. Star

Explanation: In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a point of communication. This allows for easy troubleshooting and isolation of network problems, as well as providing better performance than other topologies like bus or ring.

Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?

• a. 192.168.1.1
• b. 10.0.0.1
• c. 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334
• d. 172.16.0.0/16

Answer: c. 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334

Explanation: IPv6 addresses use a different format than IPv4, using hexadecimal instead of decimal notation. The format consists of eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, separated by colons.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a stateful firewall?

• a. It can filter traffic based on source and destination IP addresses only.
• b. It can inspect traffic at the application layer.
• c. It maintains a record of the state of connections.
• d. It can filter traffic based on MAC addresses.

Answer: c. It maintains a record of the state of connections.

Explanation: A stateful firewall maintains a record of the state of connections between hosts, allowing it to determine whether incoming traffic is part of an existing connection or not. This makes it more effective at filtering traffic and preventing attacks than a simple packet filter.

Which of the following network devices is used to connect multiple networks together?

• a. Hub
• b. Switch
• c. Router
• d. Firewall

Answer: c. Router

Explanation: A router is used to connect multiple networks together, allowing traffic to be routed between them. It operates at the network layer of the OSI model, and can make decisions about where to send traffic based on destination IP address.

Which of the following network protocols is used for file sharing on a Windows network?

• a. FTP b. SMB c. HTTP d. SMTP

Answer: b. SMB

Explanation: SMB (Server Message Block) is a network protocol used for file sharing on Windows networks. It allows files and printers to be shared between computers on a network, and can be used over both TCP/IP and NetBIOS.

Which of the following is an advantage of using a VPN to connect remote users to a corporate network?

• a. VPNs provide high speed and low latency connections.
• b. VPNs encrypt traffic, providing security over public networks.
• c. VPNs require minimal setup and configuration.
• d. VPNs do not require a reliable internet connection.

Answer: b. VPNs encrypt traffic, providing security over public networks.

Explanation: VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) create a secure, encrypted connection between remote users and a corporate network over the internet. This provides a high level of security, as data is protected from interception and eavesdropping. While VPNs can provide decent speeds, they can be affected by latency and congestion on the internet.

Which of the following wireless encryption methods is the most secure?

• a. WEP
• b. WPA
• c. WPA2
• d. TKIP

Answer: c. WPA2

Explanation: WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) is the most secure wireless encryption method, providing strong encryption and authentication mechanisms. WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) and WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) are older and less secure encryption methods, while TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) is a security enhancement for WEP that is also considered less secure than WPA2.

Which of the following is a common port used for secure web traffic?

• a. 22
• b. 80
• c. 443
• d. 3389

Answer: c. 443

Explanation: Port 443 is the default port used for HTTPS (HTTP over SSL/TLS), which is a secure version of the HTTP protocol used for web traffic. It encrypts data sent between the web server and client, providing a high level of security.

Which of the following is an advantage of using VLANs to segment a network?

• a. VLANs provide a physical barrier between devices on a network.
• b. VLANs simplify network design and reduce complexity.
• c. VLANs improve network performance by reducing broadcast traffic.
• d. VLANs can be easily configured without special equipment.

Answer: c. VLANs improve network performance by reducing broadcast traffic.

Explanation: VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) can be used to segment a network into logical groups, allowing traffic to be isolated and controlled more effectively. This can reduce broadcast traffic on the network and improve performance, as well as providing better security and management options. However, VLANs do not provide a physical barrier between devices, and may require special equipment and configuration.

Which of the following network topologies provides the highest level of redundancy?

• a. Bus
• b. Mesh
• c. Ring
• d. Star

Answer: b. Mesh

Explanation: In a mesh topology, each device is connected to multiple other devices, creating a highly redundant network. If one device fails or a link is lost, traffic can be rerouted through other paths to maintain connectivity. While mesh topologies can be complex and expensive to implement, they provide a high level of reliability and fault tolerance.

Basic Sample Questions

Question 1. When using the wireless network, some users report experiencing high levels of jitter. In troubleshooting the network, a technical expert uses the ping command with the default gateway address and checks for large variations in latency. Technicians think this could be a problem with other networks or devices that are not 802.11 compatible. What tool should the technician use to troubleshoot the problem?

• A. NetFlow analyzer
• B. Bandwidth analyzer
• C. Protocol analyzer
• D. Spectrum analyzer

Correct Answer: D

Question 2. Internet access is intermittent for wireless users. After disconnecting and reconnecting, the users utilize the web authentication process to regain connectivity. Devices connected to the APS will always be visible to the network administrator. How will you determine whether a problem is a result of one of the following steps?

• A. Check the captive portal settings for session time-outs
• B. Verify the client’s wireless settings for encryption protocol mismatches
• C. Verify that the web authentication passphrase is valid
• D. Determine whether an evil twin AP is causing a client’s dissociation

Correct Answer: A

Question 3. An unknown person follows closely behind the network administrator as he enters a data center. After stopping the person at the security desk, the administrator directs them to the next step. Identify the attacks the network administrator prevents? 

• A. Evil twin
• B. Tailgating
• C. Piggybacking
• D. Shoulder surfing

Correct Answer: B

Question 4. The client adds 100 users to its virtualization environment. Since then, each user has reported slow or unresponsive desktops. According to reports, there is minimal network congestion, zero packet loss, and acceptable packet delay. Based on the following metrics, which one will MOST accurately reveal the underlying performance problems?

• A. CPU usage Most Voted
• B. Memory Most Voted
• C. Temperature
• D. Bandwidth
• E. Latency
• F. Jitter

Correct Answer: AB

Question 5. An administrator determines that there is no scope left in the DHCP scope, and client devices cannot connect to a network. He does not want to create a new scope DHCP pool. What should the administrator do?

• A. Install load balancers
• B. Install more switches
• C. Decrease the number of VLANs
• D. Reduce the lease time

Correct Answer: D

Question 6. There was a new building built at the company’s headquarters. A fiber-optic cable connects the building to the LAN of the company. There are several users in the new building who are unable to access the intranet site via their web browser, but they can access internet sites. The network administrator can resolve this problem by which method?

• A. Make sure DHCP scope entries are correct for DNS servers
• B. The gateway address of the external firewall needs to be corrected
• C. The NTP server settings on the clients need to be corrected
• D. TFTP Issue on the company’s server needs to be corrected

Correct Answer: A

Question 7. In a data center, a technician is installing a new fiber connection. A patch panel also connects the device to the switch. The order of connection is:

• Device
• LC/LC patch cable
• Patch panel
• Cross-connect fiber cable
• Patch panel
• LC/LC patch cable
• Switch

However, the connection is not functioning. Both patch cables have been replaced with known working cables Before the installation, the device had been tested and was functioning properly. Identify the MOST likely cause behind the issue.

• A. TX/RX is reversed
• B. An incorrect cable was used
• C. The device failed during installation
• D. Attenuation is occurring

Correct Answer: A

Question 8. In order to connect switches, network technicians must obtain a new cabling certification whenever they rebuild one end of a Cat 6 (vendor-certified) cable. What method would resolve this issue by allowing the use of the original cable?

• A. CSMA/CD
• B. LACP
• C. PoE+
• D. MDIX 

Correct Answer: D

Question 9. Tracking and documenting various types of known vulnerabilities is done using one of the following?

• A. CVE Most Voted
• B. Penetration testing
• C. Zero-day
• D. SIEM
• E. Least privilege

Correct Answer: A

Question 10. Users’ email passwords are frequently hacked by brute-force programs, and the network administrator is informed. In order to mitigate this issue, which of the following policies should be implemented by the network administrator? (Choose two.)

• A. Captive portal
• B. Two-factor authentication
• C. Complex passwords
• D. Geofencing
• E. Role-based access
• F. Explicit deny

Correct Answer: BC

Question 11. To enhance the server bandwidth, a network engineer does the following:

• A switch stack is connected to a server through two network cables
• The switch ports are configured for LACP

Checks that the switch interfaces are configured correctly. What action should be taken?

• A. Load balancing
• B. Multipathing
• C. NIC teaming
• D. Clustering

Correct Answer: C

Question 12. When a technician determines the most likely probable cause of an issue, which of the following steps should he or she take next?

• A. Identify potential effects of the issue and develop a plan of action to resolve it
• B. Check the full functionality of the system and, if necessary, take appropriate preventative measures.
• C. Ensure the solution is implemented or escalate it as necessary
• D. Determine the cause of the problem by testing the theory

Correct Answer: D

Question 13. HA and disaster recovery policies are being set up for a company by an IT director. It is crucial for operations to have as little downtime as possible. Several data centers are being set up across the country to maintain data and applications in order to meet corporate requirements. A company can switch from one data center to another immediately in the event of an outage. What is the BEST description of this?

• A. A warm site
• B. Data mirroring
• C. Multipathing
• D. Load balancing
• E. A hot site

Correct Answer: E

Question 14. When the logging level for debugging is set for a network switch, requests appear to stop responding intermittently. If the technician wants to troubleshoot the issue, which metrics should he/she check first?

• A. Audit logs
• B. CPU utilization
• C. CRC errors
• D. Jitter

Correct Answer: B

Question 15. When a user pings 192.168.2.101 from a command prompt on the 192.168.2.101 network, he receives the following response: U.U.U.U. Which of the following must be configured for these networks to communicate?

• A. Network address translation
• B. Default gateway
• C. Loopback
• D. Routing protocol

Correct Answer: B

Question 16. Zero Trust in the context of network security:

• A. Decreases the odds that attackers will move laterally through a system.
• B. Enables external network communication without firewalls.
• C. Prevent the installation of malicious software that is too new to be detected by virus definitions.
• D. Prevents websites from downloading infected files.

Correct Answer: C

Question 17. NSs have to be queried by a network administrator for a remote application. Out of the following commands, which one will let the administrator finish this task in the best way?

• A. dig
• B. arp
• C. show interface
• D. hostname

Correct Answer: A

Question 18. During the deployment of a new switch model, a technician wants to integrate its monitoring software into the existing system. In order to gather metrics from a switch, the technician wants to know what metrics are available. The technician should use which of the following for the switch?

• A. MIB
• B. Trap
• C. Syslog
• D. Audit log

Correct Answer: A

Question 19. In spite of a network device configured to send critical events to a Syslog server, none of the following alerts are being received:

Severity 5 LINK-UP-DOWN: Interface 1/1, changed state to down

Severity 5 LINK-UP-DOWN: Interface 1/3, changed state to down

What is the most likely reason why the events are not being received?

• A. Configuration of the network device does not log that level to the Syslog server
• B. Due to the device being down, it could not send the event
• C. There is a compatibility issue between the Syslog server and the network device
• D. The correct MIB was not loaded to the Syslog server to receive the message

Correct Answer: A

Question 20. By entering common words and phrases into the password prompt in plaintext, an attacker attempts to discover the password to a network. Which attack type is the BEST fit for this action?

• A. pass-the-hash attack
• B. Rainbow table attack
• C. Brute-force attack
• D. Dictionary attack

Correct Answer: D